Math Memes

JPAKx4 , in LaTeX coffee stains

"Why does your resume have a coffee stain on it"
"Sorry, I'm a bit clumsy at times"
"You emailed it to me"

dubyakay ,

"It was scanned and digitized, and the software refused to let go of the stain. It was written in LaTeX."

KrankyKong ,

"Can you send me a copy of the word doc?"

pfannkuchen_gesicht , in LaTeX coffee stains

definitelly needs improvement. Just 4 options aren't enough, this needs to be made procedural.

bitfucker ,

Parametric?

pruwybn , in YOU HAVE BEEN LIED TO THIS WHOLE TIME!
@pruwybn@discuss.tchncs.de avatar

I feel like this is not so much a meme as just a thing that is wrong.

737 ,

it's a reference to some calculators wrongly approximating some values to a fraction of π

Gullible , in yeah whats wrong

I feel I must offer the superior version of that meme template. Lemmy’s not a fan of crowder for reasons likely mirroring those of his ex wife.

mathematicalMagpie ,

Fuck the guy in the original meme, but we need a version for people tired of Calvin.

Lucidlethargy ,
@Lucidlethargy@sh.itjust.works avatar
SpaceNoodle ,

No, let's filter out those people too.

southsamurai , in YOU HAVE BEEN LIED TO THIS WHOLE TIME!
@southsamurai@sh.itjust.works avatar

Sadly, this is so far over my head that I have to accept it as truth, spread the word with authority, and found a religion based on it

pearsaltchocolatebar ,

It's just an equation that gives you the first few digits of pi if you treat pi as a variable.

But, pi isn't a variable, so it's not a real equation.

southsamurai ,
@southsamurai@sh.itjust.works avatar

Ahhh, gotcha! Thanks for the info :)

dm_me_your_boobs ,

As a programmer, I know what a variable is. Therefore, now this all makes sense to me.

xor ,

it's not treating pi as a variable, though...
here's one that does work:
circumference = 2piradius,
so, pi = 2*radius/circumference... which is true... (pi is the ratio of diameter to circumference)
the meme here is just an equation that's wrong because it's wrong... pi is being treated as if it's some value that it's not in the first equation, and it's still wrong in the second equation...

pearsaltchocolatebar ,

pi is being treated as if it's some value that it's not in the first equation

That's a variable. The value of 'pi' is dependent on the rest of the equation.

If you treat it as a variable, the math gives you 3.1415926536.

DerisionConsulting ,

Maybe I am also too dumb, but isn't the issue that the first equation is just wrong? It assumes that pi only equals 3.141592654

Solely_a_Catt ,
@Solely_a_Catt@programming.dev avatar

This "proof" is based on a bug in Casio calculators (tested it on the fx-991EX classwitz, got it there too)

A try to explain it is in this video by Matt Parker. Are exactly the same numbers

lugal ,

It's not a bug, it's a feature

NateNate60 , (edited ) in yeah whats wrong

I get that this is just a meme, but for those who are curious about an actual mathematical argument, it is because Pythagoras's theorem only works in Euclidean geometries (see proof below). In Euclidean geometry, distances must be real numbers of at least 0.

There exists at least one ∆ABC in a 2-D non-Euclidean plane G where (AB)² + (AC)² ≠ (BC)² and m∠A = π/2

Proof: Let G be a plane of constant positive curvature, i.e. analogous to the exterior surface of a sphere. Let A be any point in G and A' the point of the furthest possible distance from A. A' exists because the area of G is finite. Construct any line (i.e. form a circle on the surface of the "sphere") connecting A and A'. Let this line be AA'. Then, construct another line connecting A and A' perpendicular to the first line at point A. Let this line be (AA')' Mark the midpoints between A and A' on this (AA')' as B and B'. Finally, construct a line connecting B and B' that bisects both AA' and (AA')'. Let this line be BB'. Mark the intersection points between BB' and AA' as C and C'. Now consider the triangle formed at ∆ABC. The measure of ∠A in this triangle is a right angle. The length of all legs of this triangle are, by construction, half the distance between A and A', i.e. half the maximum distance between two points on G. Thus, AB = AC = BC. Let us define the measure of AB to be 1. Thus, 1² + 1² = 2 ≠ 1². Q.E.D.

been_jamming ,

The pythagorean theorem works in any complex hilbert space

MegaMichelle , in LaTeX coffee stains
@MegaMichelle@a2mi.social avatar

@sjmarf

I couldn't find a link to coffeestains the package except in the image, so I transcribed it out here in case anyone wants to click it.

https://framagit.org/Pathe/coffeestains

steal_your_face ,
@steal_your_face@lemmy.ml avatar
guy ,
@guy@lemmy.world avatar

The whole document is a pretty funny read actually

toothpaste_sandwich , in LaTeX coffee stains

Just the thing my CV was missing.

benignintervention , in You don't have to use gyroelongation

Oh shit this just upgraded my CAD game

threelonmusketeers , (edited )

Is it possible to create a golden ratio rectangle in CAD using "ruler and compass" techniques, or is numerical approximation necessary?

anton ,

I don't do CAD, but can it be done with "ruler and compass"?
Yes, as the golden ratio is (1+sqrt(5))/2 and sqrt(5) can be found in a right angled triangle with side length 1,2 and sqrt(5).

With some effort the root of any natural number can be constructed with ruler and compass by creating a spiral of right angled triangles.

been_jamming ,

The lengths you can construct are exactly the numbers which are composed of 1, addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and square roots

Lux , in YOU HAVE BEEN LIED TO THIS WHOLE TIME!

Pi = pi/1

lugal ,

So P=p i imagine

Prunebutt , in LaTeX coffee stains

When shitposting on social media isn't enough, so you need to shitpost on CTAN.

omgitsaheadcrab , in (Physics meme but oh well)

I feel like we didn't need the arrow

Speculater ,
@Speculater@lemmy.world avatar
threelonmusketeers , (edited )
HakFoo , in yeah whats wrong

I like it.

Read the "1" unit side as "move left 1 unit" and the "i" side as "move up i units", and the hypotrnuse is the net distance travelled.

The imaginary line is perpendicular to the real line, so "up i unit" is equivalent to "right 1 unit". The two movements cancel out giving a net distance of zero.

itslilith ,
@itslilith@lemmy.blahaj.zone avatar

there is... A lot wrong with that

mozz Admin ,
mozz avatar

Why do you hate fun

mozz Admin ,
mozz avatar

Yep. A vertical line segment above A with length 𝑖 is a horizontal line segment to the left that's 1 unit long. So, the diagram needs a "not to scale" caveat like a map projection, but there's nothing actually wrong with it, and the triangle's BC side is 0 units long.

MachineFab812 , (edited )

i= √(-1) = imaginary number
(1^2) + (√(-1))^2 = 1 - 1 = 0 7

At least, I thought that was the idea in the OP.

Also, for your version, on a number line or Cartesian plane, the distance from -1 to 1 is 2, not 0

mozz Admin ,
mozz avatar

Yeah. We were making a joke about the complex plane -- you could say that measuring the hypotenuse of a triangle is equivalent to measuring the distance between points |AB| and |AC|𝑖 on the complex plane. That definition actually makes quite a bit of sense, and I think by sheer coincidence it's possible to misunderstand how to do it and wind up with a way of looking at it where the hypotenuse of a right triangle with sides 1 and 𝑖 would work out to exactly 0. Which brings it back into concordance with OP's (also wrong) Pythagorean presentation of it.

It obviously doesn't really work that way, but it's hard to see necessarily anything wrong with it, which makes it a fun math thing.

mozz Admin ,
mozz avatar

Also, for your version, on a number line or Cartesian plane, the distance from -1 to 1 is 2, not 0

Yeah. I cheated. You have to either deliberately misunderstand how to measure vectors or else drop a minus sign for it to work my way.

(Or, from my previous example, you could just frame it as you're getting the hypotenuse by measuring between |AB| and -|AC|𝑖 instead of the way I framed it -- but that makes it more obvious that you're fishing for a particular answer.)

MachineFab812 ,

I liked your other reply better, but either way I still have more to learn. ie, I had no idea what the complex plane is.

mexicancartel ,

If so moving down the imaginary line should be equivalent to miving left but then the answer must be 2 units long

But (-i)² is also -1 and it still results in 0

match , in wholesomeness
@match@pawb.social avatar

they have done a wonderful job :3

NeatNit , (edited ) in Had to learn it the hard way too many times

You still have to prove that the integral exists, i.e. that from x=0 to x=∞ the integral is some number (not ∞ and not indeterminate). So it's not a total waste of time.

Edit: oh, the limits aren't ±∞ so if the function has no vertical asymptote in the range, it's a given.

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