If a president threatens you if you don't invest in his/her company it is not abuse of office, it is an official act.
If another country wants American weapons but you need to donate to the party of the president it is not bribery, it is an official act.
The supreme court has made the rule of law meaningless for top government officials. The president now has absolute power and will need to be removed by bloodshed.
I, officially, declare myself as grand-emperor of the US. I declare, officially, that all dissenters shall be silenced. I declare, using official declaration of course, that all those richer than I owe me 100% of their assets for the rest of eternity. I officially decree that no government official, except for myself, can leave their building of work, can excuse themselves from their position, and cannot access the Internet, watch television, listen to radio broadcasts, or read books of any kind. And they have to bring their own lunches every day. Breaking any rule is punishable by exile to the Mariana trench. Exiles will be given one submersible operated by a Logitech gamepad. Making all of these rules officially of course, wouldn't want them to be criminal acts.
Biden should now officially order those judges executed. Put in place a law that the supreme court must contain an even split of representatives from both/all major parties.
Then install judges who will reverse the immunity law... Meaning this problem will not come up again.
So, would official acts as president be legal by definition? Would there be such a thing as an official act as president that may otherwise be criminal?
And how does the ruling protect against treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors (specifically, the past part)? How is this ruling not in direct contrast to the constitution?
